Gambler fallacy and probability of tossing coins

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Q. Three coins are tossed simultaneously 100 times with the following frequencies of different outcomes:

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If the three coins are simultaneously tossed again, compute the compute the probability of : 

(i) 2 heads coming up.               

If I consider gambler's fallacy, answer of (i) should be $\frac{3}{8}$.

But, the solution I got from internet says, the probability of event (i) = $\frac{36}{100}$.

Here is a link to the solution: https://byjus.com/question-answer/three-coins-are-tossed-simultaneously-100-times-with-the-following-frequencies-of-different-outcomes-begin/

Why gambler's fallacy hasn't been considered in the above solution?