So the question is in the title already. I have to prove the following using first-order logic but I am failing to do so. Please someone help me understand how do I do it?
$\forall x (P(x) \lor Q(x))$ , $\forall y. \neg P(y)$ $\vdash$ $\forall x.Q(x)$
So as for the first rule of natural deduction you can only use the elimination of the universal quantifier; can you go on from there?
it is just like PL until (and not including) the last necessary rule.