Given: A family of topological spaces: $\{(X_i, \mathcal{T_i})\mid i \in I\}$
$X = \prod_{i \in I}X_i$ is a product topology with topology defined as $\mathcal{T}$
$\pi_i: X \rightarrow X_i$ is projection mapping
Conjecture: If $E$ is closed in $X$, then $\pi_i(E)$ is closed in $X_i$. True or False?
Here's what I was thinking:
Given projecting mapping, $\pi_i(\cdot)$ is continuous by construction.
By hypothesis, $E$ is closed in $X,$ then $X-E$ is open in $X.$
Let $U=X-E$. Take any $x \in U$, $\pi_i(x) \in X_i$
Take an open set $V \in X_i$ such that $\pi_i(x) \in V$
Since $\pi_i(\cdot)$ is continuous, $\pi(U(x)) \subset V(\pi_i(x))$
Take $W = X_i - V(\pi_i(x))$ $\implies$ $W$ is closed
... Something along these lines
While I have seen counter examples, I wish to know what is wrong with my solution.
The graph of $y=e^x$ is closed, but its projection onto the $y$ axis is not closed.