If $\{A_n \; : \; n \in \mathbb N\}$ is any collection of subsets of $\mathbb R$, with each set $A_n$ containing finitely many numbers, then the union $\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n$ is closed and bounded.
I need to determine if this is true or false and if true prove it, if false provide a counter-example.
I believe this is a true statement because every finite subset of $\mathbb R$ is a bounded set, but I'm not sure if it is a closed set? I imagine it too is closed because every limit point would be in $S$.
Assuming this is true, how would I start off proving it?
If $(r_n)$ is any Cauchy sequence of real numbers and $(s_n)$ is any increasing sequence of negative numbers, then the sequence $(r_n-s_n)$ converges.
I'm confused by this one because is $s_n$ "increasing" negatively or positively? In other words if I'm at $-1000$ is my sequence heading towards $0$ or $-100000$? What does increasing mean in this context?
Since it requires a Cauchy sequence of $\mathbb R$ a good example would would be $\frac{1}{n}$
If $A_n = \{ n \}$ then $\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} A_n = \mathbb{N}$ which is not bounded so the union need to be bounded but it is closed in this case.
If $A_n = \{ \frac{1}{n} \}$ then $\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} A_n$ is bounded but not closed ($0$ is a limit point).
It is a good exercise to construct an example of $A_n$ in which $\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} A_n$ is not closed and also not bounded at the same time.