Imagine you have a gambling game with a house advantage of $1\%$. The game is very simple, you flip a coin and you win or lose. Odds of either is $50\%$. If you win, you get $1.98$ times your bet.
Now what would it do to the house advantage, if the player is allowed to flip the coin again if he loses? For example, a player bets $\$10$, flips a coin, loses, flips again (for free), and could win. What is the house advantage in this scenario if such rule would apply?
Hint: what is the chance the player wins? He need to win one flip of two.