I have a question about probability. Imagine we have a deck of 40 cards with 4 different suits of ten cards. Define two events:
$A \equiv $ We take a card and it's an ace $\Rightarrow P(A)=\frac{1}{10}$
$B \equiv $ We take a card and it's a spade $\Rightarrow P(B)=\frac{1}{4}$
$P(A\cap B) = \frac{1}{40}$
We can see that, since we return the card each time, these events are independent:
$P(A\cap B) = P(A) \cdot P(B)$
If we now add a joker to the deck, which can take any card value, then:
$P(A) = \frac{5}{41}$
$P(B) = \frac{11}{41}$
$P(A\cap B) = \frac{2}{41}$
And we can see that now the events aren't independent!
$P(A\cap B) \ne P(A)\cdot P(B)$
My question is, why does adding the joker make the events independent? How is it different from just having one more ace of spades? I mean, before adding the joker we already had a card that belonged to both events (the ace of spades)...
Thanks!
Note: the rules aren't entirely clear. Is the Joker always interpreted as $A\spadesuit$? If not, what rules determine how it is interpreted?
To be clear: If you added a second $A\spadesuit$ then the events aren't independent either. You'd get $$P(A)=\frac 5{41}\quad P(B)=\frac {11}{41}\quad P(A\cap B)=\frac 2{41}$$ just as before.
Indeed, having doubled the $A\spadesuit$, either directly or by the Joker, you make it so that drawing an Ace is evidence that the card is a spade, and drawing a spade is evidence that it is an Ace.
Specifically, before you draw anything, the probability that a random draw will be a spade is $\frac {11}{41}=0.268$. If I tell you that you have drawn an ace, however, the probability that it is a spade is now $\frac 25=.4$ so drawing an ace is strong evidence that you have drawn a spade.