Suppose that $n \in \mathbb{N}$ is composite and has a prime factor $q$. If $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ is the greatest number for which $q^k$ divides $n$, how can I show that $q^k$ does not divide ${{n}\choose{q}}$?
Clearly, since $$ {{n}\choose{q}} = \frac{n!}{(n-q)!q!} = \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \dots (n-q+1)}{q!} $$ So it suffices to show that, no element of the set $$ \left\{ n-1, n-2, \dots, n-q+1 \right\} $$ is divisible by $q$, which is clearly true, but I am unsure of how to show this rigourously.
If $q$ divides $n$, then one can conclude that:
so there is no other multiple between $n-1$ and $n-q+1$, so none of these numbers are divisible by $q$. As you have mentioned none of these elements $$ \left\{ n-1, n-2, \dots, n-q+1 \right\} $$ are divisible by $q$.
Now suppose that $q$ is a prime number, then the numerator of $$ {{n}\choose{q}} = \frac{n!}{(n-q)!q!} = \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \dots (n-q+1)}{q!} $$ is divisible by $q^k$, but not by $q^{k+1}$. Also the denominator is divisible by $q$, so one can conclude that ${{n}\choose{q}}$ is not divisible by $q^k$.