In general, it's not true that a given transcendental function $f(z)$ will give you a transcendental output for countably infinite algebraic inputs, but is there a condition that can prove that property is or isn't true for a specific function? The proofs that $e^{a}$ is transcendental are complicated and unique, but what about other transcendental functions? Isn't there something that can generalize the results by this point?
2026-02-23 01:52:58.1771811578
How can you prove algebraic inputs of a transcendental function are transcendental?
69 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in TRANSCENDENTAL-NUMBERS
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