$$f(x) = \sin(x) + 2x + 1$$
After setting
$$x = \sin(y) + 2y +1$$
I don't know how to solve for $y$.
For context, the problem is asking to find $g'(x)$, knowing that $g(x)$ is the inverse of $f(x)$.
I thought maybe I could differentiate and find the inverse of $f'(x)$. Would that be $g'(x)$?
Thanks!
The point of this exercise is the Inverse Function Theorem, which allows you to find the derivative of the inverse function at particular points under certain conditions (the link noted above in the comments explains this exactly so I will not state all that). It is particularly useful when you cannot find the inverse $g(x)$ explicitly using algebra as is the case here, and furthermore you should not generally expect to obtain $g'(x)$ as an explicit function.
A simpler example where we can find the inverse explicitly will help illustrate. Consider $f(x)=\frac 1{x-1}$. Then the inverse $g(x)$ is given by $g(x)=\frac 1x +1$. Obviously we have to exclude $x=1$ but this is fine: the IVT says we can operate in a small interval around any $x \ne 1$.
Since $g(f(x)) = x$, the chain rule gives that:
$g'(f(x))f'(x) =1$ or $g'(f(x)) = \frac 1{f'(x)}$.
You can already see that this generally will not allow you to find $g'(x)$ as an explicit function; however this formula does hold at individual points.
Back in the example, we have $f(2)=1$ and $g(1)=2$.
This tells us that $g'(1)$ should be $1/f'(2)$. Since $f'(x) = \frac {-1}{(x-1)^{2}}$, $f'(2)=-1$.
In this case we can check: $g'(x) = -\frac 1{x^2}$ so $g'(1)=-1$.
Note that that $g'(x) \ne \frac 1{f'(x)}$ as functions which is a common misconception.
You should be able to apply this in your example now to get a formula for $g'(f(x))$.