I know how to do the problem conceptually, and proving the equality by computing isn't hard, but we are required to use a bijection to prove this, any ideas please?
2026-03-26 12:52:07.1774529527
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How do I prove an equality by constructing a bijection
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Let $U$ be the set $\{1,2,\ldots,m+n\}$, $V=\{1,\ldots,m\}$ and $W=\{m+1,\ldots,m+n\}$.
Now define $\mathcal P_j(A)$ as the set of subsets of some set $A$ that have exactly $j$ elements.
Consider $$f:\bigcup_{i=0}^k[\mathcal P_i(V)\times\mathcal P_{k-i}(W)]\to\mathcal P_k(U)$$ as $$f(A,B)=A\cup B$$
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HINT:
Try to translate the formulas into combinatorical concepts i.e.:
$$ \binom{a}{b} $$
means the number of ways to choose $b$ things out of $a$ things without caring about the order of the choices.