For all concurrent lines ℓ, m, and n, regardless of configuration. We define the directed angle to be the measure of the angle starting from ℓ and ending at m, measured counterclockwise. So I came across definition of directed angles and it really seems counterintuitive to me, I'm struggling to prove this following formula $$∡ (ℓ, m) + ∡ (m, n) = ∡ (ℓ, n)$$ as I said it seems incredibly easy thing to do, but not for stupid person like I am. It seems that I need to check so many various cases.
And in 3-dimensions I would never think that such a statement was true.
Actually there are only two cases to be considered (ignoring degenerate cases when some lines coincide):