If we know that $\lnot p \lor q \lor r \lor s=\top$, then what is the value of: $(\lnot p \land \lnot q) \lor (p \land q) \lor(r \land \lnot s) \lor (\lnot r \land s)$
I tried doing it with a truth table but the answer is not apparent, the answer of course is not "True" or "False" but it will be something with $p,q,r,s$
I also tried deducing it using identities but it gets very complicated. I would appreciate any help, thank you.
Something like this?
$(\lnot p \land \lnot q) \lor (p \land q) \lor(r \land \lnot s) \lor (\lnot r \land s)$
Distribute:
$((\lnot p\lor p)\land(\lnot p\lor q)\land(\lnot q\lor p)\land(\lnot q \lor q))\lor ((r\lor \lnot r)\land(r\lor s)\land(\lnot s\lor \lnot r)\land(\lnot s\lor s))$
Use Identity Rules:
$((\lnot p\lor q)\land(\lnot q\lor p))\lor ((r\lor s)\land(\lnot s\lor \lnot r))$
Distribute:
$(\lnot p\lor q\lor r\lor s)\land(\lnot p\lor q\lor\lnot r\lor\lnot s)\land(p\lor\lnot q\lor r\lor s)\land(p\lor \lnot q\lor \lnot r\lor \lnot s)$:
Because $(\lnot p\lor q\lor r\lor s) = \top$ is known:
$(((\lnot p\lor q)\land(p\lor\lnot q))\lor\lnot r\lor\lnot s)\land(p\lor\lnot q\lor r\lor s)$
Use Implication Equivalence to put it in the same style as the original:
$((p\leftrightarrow q)\lor (\lnot r\lor \lnot s))\land((q\to p)\lor r\lor s))$