How does this converge uniformly?

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My teaching assistant told me that $\sum \frac{(-1)^n x^n}{n}$ converges uniformly on $[0,1]$, but I doubt that.

I can only see that it is uniformly convergent on $(-a,a)$ where $0<a<1$.

How do I show that the series is uniformly convergent?

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We use the definition of uniform convergence. If $x\ne 0$ and we truncate just after the term $\frac{(-1)^n x^n}{n}$, then the absolute value of the error is $\lt \frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}$. Since $\frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}\le \frac{1}{n+1}$ in our interval, for any $\epsilon\gt 0$, there is an $N$ independent of $x$ such that if $n\gt N$ then the absolute value of the truncation error is $\lt \epsilon$.