I found this question from a Facebook group for high school IB students to ask about math questions. The asker asked a question that I don't seem to understand as well, how is it possible for a graph of $e^y$ against $x^2$ to ever pass through the origin as $e^y$ is always $>0$ and thus can never be zero. I'm wondering if there is some loophole in my understanding of the meaning 'a graph of A against B'?
From my understanding of the 'graph of $e^y$ against $x^2$, the $y$-axis of the graph will be $e^y$ and the $x$-axis will be $x^2$. This is different from e.g. when we plot a graph of the function $f(x)=x^2$ in which the $y$-axis will be $x^2$ and the $x$-axis will be $x$.
Furthermore, the equation format of the question will be $e^y=4(x)^2$ and thus this suggests that if $x^2=0$ then $e^y=0$ which I'm not sure if this argument holds true.
Is it possible that the question is proposing a theoretical case? Or does the theory that underly the question's case (which one does not need to know to do this question) involves imaginary numbers?

Hint $y$ is a function of $x$. Try to plot $e^{y(x)}$ versus $x$ when $y(x)=\ln x$