I can't figure out how to determine the probability distribution function of $$aX + bY,$$ where $X$ and $Y$ are independent Poisson random variable. Basically, I want to check whether $aX+ bY$ follows a Poisson distribution. Here, $a$ and $b$ are constants coefficients.
I tried this way but can't work it out...
\begin{align*} \mathbb{P}(aX + bY= N ) &= \mathbb{P}(aX =k)\mathbb{P}(bY = N - k)\\ &= \mathbb{P}\left(X= \frac ka\right)\mathbb{P}\left(Y = \frac{N-k}{b}\right) \end{align*}
But in this way , I got to determine $(k/a)!$ And, I can't calculate ahead.
Is there a general rule for tackling problems like this? What if I wanted to determine the probability distribution of $aX^2 + bY^2$ ?
Thanks in advance.
We show that if $X$ and $Y$ are independent Poisson, and $aX+bY$ is Poisson, then $a=1,b=0$ or $a=0,b=1$, or $a=b=1$. We give an elementary argument. It is nicer, but less elementary, to use moment generating functions.
Let $W=aX+bY$. With positive probability we have $X=1$ and $Y=0$. So with positive probability we have that $W=a$. It follows that $a$ is a non-negative integer. Similarly, $b$ is a non-negative integer.
We have $W=1$ with positive probability. Since $a$ and $b$ are non-negative integers, it follows that one of $a$ or $b$ is $1$. Without loss of generality we may assume $a=1$. We show that we cannot have $b\ge 2$.
Let $X$ and $Y$ have parameters $\lambda$ and $\mu$ respectively. Then since $\Pr(W=0)=e^{-(\lambda+\mu)}$, it follows that $W$ has parameter $\lambda+\mu$, so $$\Pr(W=1)=(\lambda+\mu)e^{-(\lambda+\mu)}.$$ But $$\Pr(W=1)=\Pr(X=1)\Pr(Y=0)=\lambda e^{-(\lambda+\mu)}.$$
Cancelling, we find that $\lambda+\mu=\lambda$, so $\mu=0$, which is impossible.
Added, a better way: Suppose that $aX+bY$ is Poisson, where $X,Y$ respectively have parameters $\lambda$ and $\mu$. Then $aX+bY$ is Poisson with mean, and therefore variance, $a\lambda+b\mu$. But $aX+bY$ has variance $a^2\lambda+b^2\mu$. It follows that $(a^2-a)\lambda+(b^2-b)\mu=0$. Now we use a little of the previous proof, the part where we showed $a$ and $b$ are non-negative integers. Since $a^2\ge a$ and $b^2\ge b$, we conclude that $a^2=a$ and $b^2=b$, so $a$ and $b$ have to be one of $0$ or $1$, and we are finished.
This method generalizes nicely. We can obtain the following result. Let $X_1,X_2,\dots, X_n$ be independent Poisson. If $a_1X_1+a_2X_2+\cdots +a_nX_n$ is Poisson, then for any $i$ we have $a_i=0$ or $a_i=1$.