Recently I came across the following identity, but if I try proving it with induction, then I get stuck.
$$n! = \sum^n_{k=0}(-1)^{n-k}\binom{n}{k}(k+1)^n$$
While trying my induction step I get the following:
$$(n+1)! = (n+1)\sum^n_{k=0}(-1)^{n-k}\binom{n}{k}(k+1)^n$$ $$(n+1)! = \sum^n_{k=0}(-1)^{n-k}\binom{n+1}{k+1}(k+1)^{n+1}$$ $$\vdots$$ $$(n+1)! = \sum^{n+1}_{k=0}(-1)^{n+1-k}\binom{n+1}{k}(k+1)^{n+1}$$
(Question) How do I complete the proof?
Thanks in advance.
This is quite tough to show using induction. BUT ...
Using the $[x^k]:f(x)$ to represent the coeficient of $x^k$ in the power series for $f(x)$.
Note that \begin{eqnarray*} \frac{(k+1)^n}{n!} =[x^n]: e^{(k+1)x}. \end{eqnarray*} Now divide your equation by $n!$ and we have \begin{eqnarray*} \sum_{k-0}^{n} (-1)^{n-k} \binom{n}{k}\frac{(k+1)^n}{n!} &=&[x^n]: \sum_{k-0}^{n} (-1)^{n-k} \binom{n}{k} e^{(k+1)x} \\&=& [x^n]:e^x(e^x-1)^n =\color{red}{1}. \end{eqnarray*}