Assume we have a population of N men and women such that exactly $N/2$ people are men (set $M$) and $N/2$ people are women (set $W$).
Assume that the standard deviations for height between both groups is the same $\sigma$ however their averages are different with $\mu_M > \mu_W$.
We pick $n$ people at random from the population such that $n/2$ people are men and $n/2$ people are women.
Knowing $n$ what's the probability that the tallest person in the selected group is a man?
Note: this is not homework, I came up with this question on my own. Note 2: all distributions are normal distributions.
EDIT: My current reasoning is that if $Z = M-W$:
$E(Z) = E(M-W) = E(M) - E(W)$
And
$V(Z) = V(M-W) = V(M) + V(W) = \sqrt2\sigma$
Thus the probability that one man is taller than one woman is:
$P(Z>0)$
And so the probability that all women are taller than all men in the sample is: $(1 - P(Z>0))^{n/2}$:
However this result has lead me to some very odd conclusions. So I suspect I am wrong.


Here is an idea. First, you divide population into two groups, then independently select $n/2$ people from men sub-population and $n/2$ people from women sub-population. This way you select sub-samples of men and women independently from each other. Next, denote $Y$ as a random variable that records the maximum women's height in the sample, and $X_{i}$ as the order statistic such that $X_{1}$ is the minimum height of a man and $X_{n/2}$ is the maximum height of a man. The tallest person is a man if the following event happens: $$(Y \leq X_{1}) \cup (Y > X_{1},Y \leq X_{2}) \cup (Y > X_{2},Y \leq X_{3}) \cup ... \cup (Y > X_{n/2 - 1},Y \leq X_{n/2})$$ This union event actually simplifies to $Y \leq X_{n/2}$ event, so the target probability is $\mathbb{P}[Y \leq X_{n/2}]$. Next steps seem to requite some additional assumptions. First, it seems a bit strange to assume that heights are normally distributed, since normal distribution has support over all reals, and heights cannot be negative. Assuming your probability density function of men's heights is $f_m(x)$ and probability density function of women's heights is $f_w(y)$, then you can write: $$\mathbb{P}[Y \leq X_{n/2}] = \int_{0}^{u}\int_{y}^{u}f_m(x)f_w(y)dxdy$$ where $u$ is whatever upper bound you wish to impose on height, can be even infinity.