One dimensional Hilbert transform $\mathcal{H}f(x) = \frac{1}{\pi} p.v. \int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{f(y)}{x-y}dy$ could be efficiently approximated by Sinc functions if $f$ belongs to Wiener space of entire functions of exponential type, that is, $\mathcal{H}f(x) = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}f(kh)\frac{1-\cos(\pi(x-kh)/h)}{\pi(x-kh)/h}$. So for multidimensional Hilbert transform, say two-dimensional HT defined as $\mathcal{H}_{xy}(f(x,y))(u,v) = \frac{1}{\pi^2} p.v. \iint_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{f(x,y)}{(u-x)(v-y)}dxdy$, is there any efficient approximation for that? I don't know if normal numerical methods for Riemann integral could be applied on principal integral.
2026-03-28 00:06:12.1774656372
How to numerically approximate multi-dimensional Hilbert transform?
231 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
1
There are 1 best solutions below
Related Questions in HARMONIC-ANALYSIS
- An estimate in the introduction of the Hilbert transform in Grafakos's Classical Fourier Analysis
- Show that $x\longmapsto \int_{\mathbb R^n}\frac{f(y)}{|x-y|^{n-\alpha }}dy$ is integrable.
- Verifying that translation by $h$ in time is the same as modulating by $-h$ in frequency (Fourier Analysis)
- Seeking an example of Schwartz function $f$ such that $ \int_{\bf R}\left|\frac{f(x-y)}{y}\right|\ dy=\infty$
- Computing Pontryagin Duals
- Understanding Book Proof that $[-2 \pi i x f(x)]^{\wedge}(\xi) = {d \over d\xi} \widehat{f}(\xi)$
- Expanding $\left| [\widehat{f}( \xi + h) - \widehat{f}( \xi)]/h - [- 2 \pi i f(x)]^{\wedge}(\xi) \right|$ into one integral
- When does $\lim_{n\to\infty}f(x+\frac{1}{n})=f(x)$ a.e. fail
- The linear partial differential operator with constant coefficient has no solution
- Show $\widehat{\mathbb{Z}}$ is isomorphic to $S^1$
Related Questions in ANALYTIC-FUNCTIONS
- Confusion about Mean Value Theorem stated in a textbook
- A question about real-analytic functions vanishing on an open set
- Prove $f$ is a polynomial if the $n$th derivative vanishes
- Show $\not\exists$ $f\in O(\mathbb{C})$ holomorphic such that $f(z)=\overline{z}$ when $|z|=1$.
- Riemann Mapping and Friends in a Vertical Strip
- How to prove that a complex function is not analytic in a rectangle?
- Prove or disprove that every Holomorphic function preserving unboundedness is a polynomial.
- If $f'$ has a zero of order $m$ at $z_0$ then there is $g$ s.t $f(z) - f(z_0) = g(z)^{k+1}$
- Schwarz lemma, inner circle onto inner circle
- Existence of meromorphic root for meromorphic function
Trending Questions
- Induction on the number of equations
- How to convince a math teacher of this simple and obvious fact?
- Find $E[XY|Y+Z=1 ]$
- Refuting the Anti-Cantor Cranks
- What are imaginary numbers?
- Determine the adjoint of $\tilde Q(x)$ for $\tilde Q(x)u:=(Qu)(x)$ where $Q:U→L^2(Ω,ℝ^d$ is a Hilbert-Schmidt operator and $U$ is a Hilbert space
- Why does this innovative method of subtraction from a third grader always work?
- How do we know that the number $1$ is not equal to the number $-1$?
- What are the Implications of having VΩ as a model for a theory?
- Defining a Galois Field based on primitive element versus polynomial?
- Can't find the relationship between two columns of numbers. Please Help
- Is computer science a branch of mathematics?
- Is there a bijection of $\mathbb{R}^n$ with itself such that the forward map is connected but the inverse is not?
- Identification of a quadrilateral as a trapezoid, rectangle, or square
- Generator of inertia group in function field extension
Popular # Hahtags
second-order-logic
numerical-methods
puzzle
logic
probability
number-theory
winding-number
real-analysis
integration
calculus
complex-analysis
sequences-and-series
proof-writing
set-theory
functions
homotopy-theory
elementary-number-theory
ordinary-differential-equations
circles
derivatives
game-theory
definite-integrals
elementary-set-theory
limits
multivariable-calculus
geometry
algebraic-number-theory
proof-verification
partial-derivative
algebra-precalculus
Popular Questions
- What is the integral of 1/x?
- How many squares actually ARE in this picture? Is this a trick question with no right answer?
- Is a matrix multiplied with its transpose something special?
- What is the difference between independent and mutually exclusive events?
- Visually stunning math concepts which are easy to explain
- taylor series of $\ln(1+x)$?
- How to tell if a set of vectors spans a space?
- Calculus question taking derivative to find horizontal tangent line
- How to determine if a function is one-to-one?
- Determine if vectors are linearly independent
- What does it mean to have a determinant equal to zero?
- Is this Batman equation for real?
- How to find perpendicular vector to another vector?
- How to find mean and median from histogram
- How many sides does a circle have?
Tensor products of functions
If $f_i$, $i\in\{1,2\}$ are functions of one variable, we define their tensor product to be the function of two variables
$$ (f_1\otimes f_2)(x_1,x_2)=f_1(x_1)f_2(x_2) $$ Don't be afraid of the word tensor, nothing difficult at all is going on here. You might even already know this operation from probability theory, where $f_1\otimes f_2$ would be the probability density function of two independent random variables with probability density functions $f_i$.
Tensor products of operators
If $A$ is a linear operator that maps functions of one variable to functions of one variable (as the univariate Hilbert transform does), then $A\otimes A$, the tensor product of A with itself, is defined by
$$ (A\otimes A)(f_1\otimes f_2)=Af_1\otimes Af_2. $$ This is not very helpful yet, as we have only defined $A\otimes A$ on tensor product functions, and it is not hard to come up with functions of two variables that cannot be written as tensor products. For example, $f(x_1,x_2):=x_1^2+x_2^2$ is not a tensor product. To fix this, we extend the definition of $A\otimes A$ by linearity. This means that we say we want $A\otimes A$ to be a linear operator, which implies
$$ (A\otimes A)(\sum_{j=1}^{N} f^{(j)}_{1}\otimes f^{(j)}_{2}):= \sum_{j=1}^{N} (A\otimes A)(f^{(j)}_{1}\otimes f^{(j)}_{2}). $$ Thus, we know how to apply $A\otimes A$ to any finite sum of tensor product functions. (Note that we now know how to apply $A\otimes A$ to $x_1^2+x_2^2$). Finally, we can use continuity arguments to extend this definition even to infinite sums of tensor product functions, and after we do so it is really hard to come up with any functions for which $A\otimes A$ is undefined (specifics depend on norms used etc. but are not essential).
Important note Assume there is another linear and continuous operator $B$ that agrees with $A\otimes A$ on all tensor product functions. Then you may easily check that $B$ must actually be equal to $A\otimes A$!
To approximate tensor products, you may tensorize approximations
Assume we have operators $A_{n}$ that converge to $A$ in the operator norm, $\|A-A_{n}\|\to 0$.
Claim: $A_{n}\otimes A_{n}\to A\otimes A$.
Proof: $$ \|A_{n}\otimes A_{n}-A\otimes A\|=\|(A_{n}-A)\otimes A + A\otimes (A_{n}-A)+(A_{n}-A)\otimes (A_{n}-A)\|\\ \leq \|(A_{n}-A)\otimes A\|+ \|A\otimes (A_{n}-A)\|+\|(A_{n}-A)\otimes (A_{n}-A)\|\\ \leq \|A_{n}-A\|\|A\|+ \|A\|\|A_{n}-A\|+\|A_{n}-A\|\|A_{n}-A\|\to 0 $$ Remark You might have noticed that for the last inequality we used a property of tensor product operators that we haven't proved.
Two-dimensional Hilbert transform is tensor product of univariate transforms
I claim that the definition of the two-dimensional Hilbert transform that you used, let's name the operator $H_2$, equals the tensor product of the univariate Hilbert transform, $H_1\otimes H_1$. By the important note at the end of the second section, it suffices to verify this for tensor product functions. And indeed, we have (using formal calculations, since we weren't being rigorous about continuity anyway) $$ (H_2(f_1\otimes f_2))(x_1,x_2)=\int_{\mathbb{R}^2} \frac{f_1(y_1)f_2(y_2)}{(x_1-y_1)(x_2-y_2)} dy=(\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{f_1(y_1)}{x_1-y_1} dy_1)(\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{f_2(y_2)}{x_2-y_2}dy_2)=(H_1f_1)(x_1)(H_2f_2)(x_2)=((H_1\otimes H_2)(f_1\otimes f_2))(x_1,x_2). $$
Conclusion
You have an operator $H_2=H_1\otimes H_1$ and you have approximations $H_{1,K}\to H_{1}$. Hence, you may approximate $H_2$ by $H_{1,K}\otimes H_{1,K}$ ($K$ is where you cut off your infinite series at both ends, i.e. let's assume you uses the indices $|k|\leq K$).
Question What is $H_{1,K}\otimes H_{1,K}$?
Answer
$$ ((H_{1,K}\otimes H_{1,K})f)(x_1,x_2)=\sum_{|k_1|\leq K, |k_2|\leq K} f(k_1h,k_2h)\frac{1-\cos(\pi(x_1-k_1h)/h)}{\pi(x_1-k_1h)/h}\frac{1-\cos(\pi(x_2-k_2h)/h)}{\pi(x_2-k_2h)/h}. $$
Proof Again, you only need to verify that this formula is correct for tensor product functions. This is easy.
Remark Strictly speaking, the approximation formula you have given only converges if you let both $K$ and $h$ go to the limits $\infty$ and $0$, respectively. Accordingly, the two dimensional approximation formula could also simply be written as
$$ \sum_{(k_1,k_2)\in\mathbb{N}^2} f(k_1h_1,k_2h_2)\frac{1-\cos(\pi(x_1-k_1h)/h)}{\pi(x_1-k_1h_1)/h_1}\frac{1-\cos(\pi(x_2-k_2h_2)/h_2)}{\pi(x_2-k_2h_2)/h_2} $$
with the understanding that both the index set of the $(k_1,k_2)$'s has to be truncated appropriately, and both $h_1$, $h_2$ have to be appropriately small. To make these choices rigorously, you'd have to make assumptions on the decay properties of $f$ itself and of its Fourier transform