I am proving this statement.
$$ (2n)! < {2}^{2n} (n!)^2 $$
I proved it for $n=1$.
Did the induction hypothesis for $n+1$.
$(2n+2)! < 2^{2n+2}((n+1)!)^2 $
But I get stuck at this step,
$(2n+2)(2n+1)(2n)! < 2^{n} * 2^2 (n+1)^2 (n!)^2 $
What should I do next?
$$\begin{align} 2^{2n}=(1+1)^{2n}=\sum_{r=0}^{2n}\binom {2n}r\; &> \; \binom {2n}n=\frac {(2n)!}{n!n!}.\\ \therefore\ (2n)!\; &<\; 2^{2n}(n!)^2.\end{align}$$