There exists $a,b \in \mathbb{R}-\mathbb{Q}$ such that $a^b \in \mathbb{R}-\mathbb{Q}$.
I am lost as to where to begin. In my class, the only irrational numbers we've really covered is $\sqrt{2}$ and cubed root of two. Any help would be appreciated!
Edit : How my professor did it.
Proof: Consider $\sqrt{2}^{\sqrt{2}}\cdot\sqrt{2}^{1-\sqrt{2}} = \sqrt{2}$. Since a rational multiplied by an irrational is irrational, either $\sqrt{2}^{\sqrt{2}}$ is irrational or $\sqrt{2}^{1-\sqrt{2}}$ is irrational. We will proceed by cases.
Case 1: $\sqrt{2}^{\sqrt{2}}$ is irrational. Then $a=\sqrt{2},b=\sqrt2$.
Case 2: $\sqrt{2}^{1-\sqrt{2}}$ is irrational. Then $a=\sqrt2,b=1-\sqrt2$.
Thus there exists irrationals a,b where $a^b$ is irrational.
There are several ways to approach this problem at an elementary level. But it depends a lot on the context and the material you are expected to know. Here is a suggestion. Consider the function $f(x)=e^x$. I assume you know that $e$ is irrational and that $f$ is injective on the reals. If it were the case that for all irrational $x$ the value $f(x)$ were rational, then you would have an injection from the irrationals to the rationals, thus violating cardinality.