Prove that $﹁p → (q→r)$ and $q → (p∨r)$ are logically equivalent using different laws.
this is my answer:
$﹁p → (q→r) = q → (p∨r)$
$(q→r) = ﹁q∨r$ implication equivalence
$﹁p → (q→r) = p∨(﹁q∨r)$ material implication
$(p∨﹁q) ∨ (p∨r)$ distribution
$(q → p) ∨ (p∨r)$ implication
$q → (p ∨ p) ∨ r = q → (p∨r)$ tautology
Hi guys can you please check my answer if it is correct...Thanks in advance
There's no need to use distribution since $p \lor(\lnot q \lor r) \equiv p \lor \lnot q \lor r$ due to associativity of $\lor$, and by commutativity of $\lor$, that gives us $$\lnot q \lor p \lor r \equiv \lnot q \lor (p \lor r) \equiv q\rightarrow (p \lor r)$$
What is highly questionable in your proof is the second line of the following:
$(q → p) ∨ (p∨r)$
$q → (p ∨ p) ∨ r = q → (p∨r)$
You need to say more to justify this move. In the end, though, as I point out above, it is unnecessary to have distributed $\lor $ over $\lor$.