As the question suggests, I came across the following integral in a calculation: $$\int_0^1 (1 - x) \sqrt{2\over\pi} e^{x^2/2}dx.$$ According to Wolfram Alpha, this equals$$\text{erfi}\left({1\over{\sqrt{2}}}\right) - (\sqrt{e} - 1)\sqrt{2\over\pi} \approx 0.435834.$$However, I'm wondering if anyone can give a reasonable numerical estimate for this integral from first principles (pencil and paper) without using a calculator or Wolfram Alpha.
I've tried but made little to no progress, and two PhD students I consulted didn't know either, so I'm asking here.
Write $$(1-x)\, e^{\frac {x^2}2}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^{2n}}{2^n\,n!}-\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^{2n+1}}{2^n\,n!}$$ $$\int_0^1 (1-x)\, e^{\frac {x^2}2}\,dx=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac 1{2^{n+1}\,(2n+1)\, (n+1)!}$$ COmputing the partial sums $$S_p=\sum_{n=0}^p \frac 1{2^{n+1}\,(2n+1)\, (n+1)!}$$ this generates the sequence $$\left\{\frac{1}{2},\frac{13}{24},\frac{131}{240},\frac{2447}{4480},\frac{26429}{48384 },\frac{5814401}{10644480},\frac{151174459}{276756480},\cdots\right\}$$