In the book of The theory of Functions by Titchmarsh, at page 83, in the proof of the fact that analytic functions can be expressed as power series, it is stated that
$$\frac{1}{w-z} = \frac{1}{w-a} + \frac{z-a}{(w-a)^2} + \dots \frac{(z-a)^n}{(w-a)^{n+1}} \dots ,$$ where $w$ is on the circle $\Gamma$ with centre $a$ and radius $\sigma < \delta$, where $|z-a| < \delta$ .
However, I cannot see how the RHS is equal to LHS ? I mean this is basically the Taylor's theorem for complex functions, but this is what we are trying to show in here, so it is confusing.
\begin{align}\frac1{w-a}+\frac{z-a}{(w-a)^2}+\frac{(z-a)^2}{(w-a)^3}+\cdots&=\frac1{w-a}\sum_{n=0}^\infty\left(\frac{z-a}{w-a}\right)^n\\&=\frac{\frac1{w-a}}{1-\frac{z-a}{w-a}}\\&=\frac1{w-a-z+a}\\&=\frac1{w-z}.\end{align}