How would one show that any given prime p_i must be a factor of some (p_j - 1)? Is that a true property of primes even?

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In short, what I'm asking is, if you were to go through the whole set of positive primes term by term and find for each prime p the prime factorization of (p - 1), whether all prime numbers would eventually show up as a factor of some (p_i - 1) term for some i. So the question I suppose can be phrased instead as whether for any prime p_i, there must exist some p_j such that p_i is a factor of (p_j - 1).

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As stated in the comments, Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions implies that, for any prime $p,$ then since $p$ and $(p+1)$ are coprime, there is a prime of the form $p_j= (p+1) + np;\ $ in other words, $ p_j - 1\ $ is a multiple of $p.$ In fact, Dirichlet's theorem implies that there are infinitely many primes in the set $\{ (p+1) + np: n\in\mathbb{N}. \}.$