I don't understand the following statement: Let $X_N$ , N $=$ 1,2, ... random variables with hypergeometric distribution; Parameter ($N$,[P$N$],n).
Show that:
$$\lim_{N\to \infty} P( X_N = k ) = \binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k}$$
Does this means that the hypergeometric distribution approaches binomial distribution for N $\rightarrow$ $\infty$ ?
Can somebody give me only the beginning of this proof?