I’ve been trying to derive the Leibniz Integral Rule 1 in 3D and I’ve nearly got it, but where Wikipedia shows $V \circ \nabla F$, my approach gives $V( \nabla \circ F)$. I’m thinking that the two quantities are related, but I have failed to show how. My approach has been brute force in Cartesian coordinates.
If you have another approach for figuring out the identity, I would be super grateful. V and F are both vectors.
Thanks in advance!