Let $A\subset B$ and both $A$,$B$ are ring. Suppose given that $B$ is a noetherian ring then is it true that when we consider $B$ as $A$-module then it is again a noetherian $A$-module?
My effort : I think it is not true as such but unable to find an counter example.Any help/hint in this regards would be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance!
Consider $\mathbb Q\subseteq \mathbb R$.