If $f$ denotes the function which gives $\cos(17x)$ in terms of $\cos x$, that is $\cos(17 x) = f (\cos x)$, then, prove that it is the same function $f$ which gives $\sin(17x)$ in terms of $\sin x$. Generalize this result.
I am really unable to understand how I should go about this question. Thanks a lot.
$\displaystyle \cos 17x = f(\cos x) \\ \displaystyle\cos 17 (\frac{\pi}2 - x) = f(\cos (\frac{\pi}2 - x)) \\ \displaystyle\cos (\frac{17\pi}{2} - 17x) =f(\sin x) \\\displaystyle \cos (8\pi + \frac{\pi}{2} - 17x) = f(\sin x) \\ \displaystyle\cos(\frac{\pi}2 - 17x) = f(\sin x) \\\displaystyle \sin 17x = f(\sin x) $
The generalisation is that $\displaystyle \cos nx = f(\cos x) \iff \sin nx = f(\sin x)$ holds for all $\displaystyle n = 4k+1, k \in \mathbb{Z}$