Let $\alpha,\beta\in\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Q$ such that $\frac1\alpha+\frac1\beta=1$, and define $S(x)=\{\lfloor nx\rfloor:n\in\Bbb N\}$. (Note that my convention takes $0\notin\Bbb N$.) The claim is that $S(\alpha)$ and $S(\beta)$ form a partition of $\Bbb N$. I find this claim rather startling, although it is at least believable considering that $d(S(x))=\frac1x$ (this is natural density), so that the condition $\frac1\alpha+\frac1\beta=1$ is necessary in view of $1=d(\Bbb N)=d(S(\alpha))+d(S(\beta))=\frac1\alpha+\frac1\beta$.
This result is quoted in another MSE question as "well-known", but no reference is given. Is there an easy way to prove this?
One way to prove this is to write down a criteria for membership in the set $S_r=\{[nr]:n\in\mathbb Z\}$, noting that for $r>1$ the set $\{[nr]:n\in\mathbb N\}$ is exactly the positive elements thereof. To do this, note that if $x=[nr]$ for some $n$, then $x=nr-f$ for some $0\leq f < 1$. Rearranging gives $$-x/r=-n+f/r.$$ Note that the existence of a solution is equivalent to the fractional parts of either side being equal, as we have an integer $-n$ to freely choose. Thus, we equivalently may write: $$\{-x/r\}=f/r.$$ However, as $f$ is an arbitrary element of $[0,1)$, this is equivalent to a final necessary and sufficient criteria for membership in $S_r$: $$\{-x/r\}<1/r$$ where $\{y\}$ is the fractional part of $y$ - that is, the unique element $z$ of $[0,1)$ such that $y-z$ is an integer.
Then, what remains to show is that for irrational $r$ and $s$ with $\frac{1}r+\frac{1}s=1$, for any positive integer $x$ we have that $x$ is in exactly one of $S_r$ or $S_s$. That is, exactly one of the following equations hold: $$\{-x/r\}<1/r$$ $$\{-x/s\}<1/s$$ To do this, note that $\frac{-x}r+\frac{-x}s=-x$, which is an integer. As neither of these terms may be an integer due to irrationality, it follows that $\{-x/r\}+\{-x/s\}=1$. Thus, we may rearrange our equations by substitution: $$\{-x/r\}<1/r$$ $$1-\{-x/r\}<1-1/r.$$ Or, equivalently: $$\{-x/r\}<1/r$$ $$\{-x/r\}>1/r.$$ Obviously, exactly one of these holds unless $\{-x/r\}=1/r$. However, this would imply that $\frac{-x-1}r$ is an integer, which is impossible since $r$ is irrational and $-x-1$ is non-zero. This proves that exactly one of these holds or any positive integer $x$, proving the desired statement. Note that these proofs can be extended to show that $S_r\cup S_s = \mathbb Z\setminus \{-1\}$ and $S_r\cap S_s=\{0\}$, noting that our argument works whenever $\frac{-x}r$ and $\frac{-x-1}r$ are not integers.