I know that this statement is false: If $H = Z(G),$ then $Z(G/H) = 1.$
And I have known from a previous question of mine that any non-abelian nilpotent group is a counterexample.
My questions are:
1- Why any non-abelian nilpotent group is a counterexample? what is the idea that we are using to create a counterexample?
2- Could anyone show me the details that show that the quaternions group is a counterexample, please? why is the center of the quaternions $\mathbb Z_{2}$?
Could anyone help me with that, please?
Quotients of nilpotent groups are also nilpotent, and nontrivial nilpotent groups have a nontrivial center practically by definition. For the second question, just use the fact that any group of order $4$ is abelian.