For example,
If I am dealt Q$\diamondsuit$ K$\diamondsuit$ 7$\spadesuit$ 3$\diamondsuit$ 5$\spadesuit$ and hold the Q$\diamondsuit$ and K$\diamondsuit$, how do I calculate the number of possible hands that yield 1 pair of Jacks or Better?
So far, I have:
$\frac{2{3\choose 1}{41\choose 2} +2{4\choose 2}{37\choose 1}}{47\choose 3}$ = $\frac{5364}{16215}$ = .33
This is off roughly 2% according to this poker calculator. Where am I going wrong?
Since you have not explained your working I'm guessing a bit, but it looks like you have calculated the probability of two kinds of hand. However there are many possibilities for getting two jacks or better from your hand: