Let A and B be sets with the cardinality of A less than or equal to B. Show there exists an onto map from B to A.
I am struggling with this proof. I don't know how to show this. Any help would be greatly appreciated
Let A and B be sets with the cardinality of A less than or equal to B. Show there exists an onto map from B to A.
I am struggling with this proof. I don't know how to show this. Any help would be greatly appreciated
On
The basic gist is that we know (from the definition of cardinality) that there exists an injective function from $A$ to $B$. We'll then use this function and it's properties to define a surjective function from $B$ to $A$.
By the definition of cardinality we have
$$ |A| \leq |B| \Leftrightarrow \exists \; f:A \rightarrow B \ni f \mbox{ is injective.} $$
If $B'$ is the image if $f$ in $B$ then let $g':B' \rightarrow A$ be defined such that $\forall b' \in B'$ we have $g'(b') = \{a \in A | f(a) = b'\}$. We need to show that this mapping is well-defined ($\forall b' \in B'$), single valued, and onto $A$.
Well defined: Because $B'$ is the image of $A$ we know that $f:A\rightarrow B'$ is surjective. This means that
$$ \forall b' \in B' \;\; \exists a \in A \;\; \ni \;\; f(a) = b'. $$
Thus $g'$ is defined $\forall b' \in B'$.
Single valued: Assume $g'$ is not single valued. This means that $\exists a_1, a_2\in A$ with $a_1 \neq a_2$ and $b' \in B'$ such that $f(a_1) = f(a_2) = b'$. But because $f$ is injective this implies that $a_1=a_2$. This is a contradiction and thus $g'$ is single valued.
Onto: Because $f:A \rightarrow B'$ is well defined we have that
$$ \forall a \in A \;\; \exists b'_a\in B' \;\; \ni \;\; f(a)=b'_a. $$
So given any $a\in A$ we have that $g'(b'_a) = a$ and thus $g'$ is surjective.
To finish the proof you just need to define $g:B \rightarrow A$ such that $g(b)=g'(b)$ if $b \in B'$ and $g(b)= \mbox{ any element from A you want }$ otherwise.
This argument can be cleaned up a bit but it should get you where you need to go.
A not empty There exists an injective map $f:A\rightarrow B$, there exists an inverse $g:f(A)\rightarrow A$. Let $a\in A$, $h:B\rightarrow A$ defined by $h(x)= g(x), x\in f(A)$ otherwise $h(x)= a$