So, I'm having a bit of trouble with this proof.
That is: If $p$ is prime and $p > 2$, then $p^2+4$ is prime.
I've tried proving this by finding the contrapositve of the equivalent:
($p$ is prime $\land$ p>2) $\rightarrow (p^2+4$ is prime)
as: $\neg (p^2+4$ is prime) $\rightarrow \neg (p$ is prime $\land$ $p>2$)
So, I was thinking that if $p>2$ then the only way $p^2+4$ is not prime is if it's an even number. Then finding for $p$ in $p^2+4 = 2k$ would be:
$p = \sqrt{2k-4}$
$p = \sqrt{\frac{1}{4}(8k-16)}$
$p = \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{8k-16}$
$p = 2(\frac{1}{4}\sqrt{8k-16})$
But this seems like a stretch... Though, I suppose that if I can prove the negation of the predicate to be true then I'll be able to prove this, but I'm not sure how to go about doing so. Since, I'm unsure how to prove this directly.
There are infinitely many counterexamples by Dirichlet's theorem. First of all, there are infinitely many primes $p$ satisfying $p\equiv 1\bmod 5$. Then ... well, we only need some counterexamples here. So let's take some new ones $$ 31^2+4=5\cdot 193, \quad 41^2+4=5\cdot 337, \quad61^2+4=5^2\cdot 149 $$