I'm filling the gaps in a proof and I'm stuck in this part:
Suppose $R$ is a UFD and $Q$ is a prime ideal of $R[x]$, if $F$ is the quotient field of $R$ and $R\cap Q=\{0\}$, then $QF[x]\cap R[x]=Q$.
I've been dealing with this problem for some days and every idea I have never works. I consider now is the time to come here, so I hope that some of you could give me a hand with this.
I don't post what I've done in order to solve the problem because, as I have told, anything of it worked.
Hints will suffice. Thanks a lot.
Your claim is wrong!
Take $R=\mathbb Z$ and $Q=2\mathbb Z[X]$. Then $Q\mathbb Q[X]=\mathbb Q[X]$.
However, if you add to the hypothesis $Q\cap R=(0)$, then the equality holds since then the extension of $Q$ to the ring of fractions $F[X]=S^{-1}R[X]$, where $S=R-\{0\}$, is $S^{-1}Q\ne F[X]$.