Using the lemma $F(u)=F(cu)=F(c+u)$ for $c\in F$, I can prove:
If $r=t^2s$ for some $t\in \mathbb{Q}$, then $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{r})=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{t^2s})=\mathbb{Q}(t\sqrt{s})$, and since $r$ and $s$ are not zero, then $t\neq0$, and there exists $t^{-1}$. We can conclude that $\mathbb{Q}(t\sqrt{s})=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{s})$. Therefore $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{r})=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{s})$. However I can't prove the converse.
The statement is clear if $\sqrt{r}$ is rational: also $\sqrt{s}$ must be, so they're both squares and so is their ratio.
Assume $\sqrt{r}$ is irrational.
Since $\sqrt{s}\in\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{r})$, there exist $a,b\in\mathbb{Q}$ such that $$ (a+b\sqrt{r})^2=s $$ Thus $a^2+rb^2+2ab\sqrt{r}=s$. Suppose $ab\ne0$; then $$ \sqrt{r}=\frac{s-a^2-rb^2}{2ab}\in\mathbb{Q} $$ a contradiction. Therefore either $a=0$ or $b=0$. The case $b=0$ is ruled out, because $\sqrt{s}$ cannot be rational. Thus $a=0$.