Let $A$ be a non-empty set, and let $R$ and $S$ be relations on A.
If $R \cup S$ is an equivalence relation on $A$, then $R$ and $S$ are equivalence relations on $A$.
How can i prove it? I think it is not necessarily true but i dont know how to start.
This is not true. Here's an explicit example. Let $A = \{0, 1\}$, $R = \{(0, 0)\}$, $S = \{(1, 1)\}$. Then $R \cup S = \{(0, 0), (1, 1)\}$, which is an equivalence relation (just equality). Neither $R$ nor $S$ are equivalence relations as neither are reflexive.