My proof:
Lets assume $A$ is an arbitrary set, where $R$ is a relation over the set $A$. Consider $I_A$ to be an arbitrary identity relation. We will prove if $I_A \subseteq R$ and $R \circ R \subseteq R$ then $R$ is a preorder relation.
Consequently we know that $I_A \subseteq R$, therefore for every $x$, we know $(x,x) \in R$. Therefore we can conlude that $R$ is reflexive. We need to prove that $R$ is transitive.
To prove $R$ is transitive, we know $R \circ R \subseteq R$. This tells us that when we combined R with itself, no new relations were created. Because we know no new relations were created,lets assume, a,b and c are arbitrary elements, we can conclude if aRb and bRc then aRc must be true. Therefore the we can conclude $R$ is transitive. This implies that $R$ is reflexive and transitive. $\blacksquare$
My problem:
- I'm not sure if i've done the proof right, so if anyone can check it. That would be of great help
- When I tried writing the proof, I felt like i didn't go into too much mathematical detail regarding the composition. To check that if $R \circ R \subseteq$ is really transitive, I did some examples and checked if that was true. Then i did the same thing but with untransitive relations, which resulted in new relations. Which is what i sort of expected, but I couldn't really mathematically explain what $R \circ R$ was actually doing and the mathematical explanation behind why $R \circ R \subseteq R$ is transitive. And like i'm still really confused when I read my proof .
This helps a reader of your proof a lot, so you and he/she are on the same page. Then you need to pick up an arbitrary $x$ and conclude somehow that $(x, x) \in R$ or $xRx$.
See how I write how I got to that conclusion that $xRx$.
Now see carefully at the definition of composition of relations, which states that:
So go back to our proof. Let $R_1 = R$ and $R_2 = R$. Then we see that $x R y$ and $y R z$, or $x R_1 y$ and $y R_2 z$. So as it turned out we have such $z \in A$ (namely $y$), where $x R_1 z$ and $z R_2 y$. Therefore we can conclude that $x(R_1 \circ R_2)y$.