This is Durrett Exercise 5.4.9.
I'm trying to show that if $X_n$ is a martingale, and $b_m \uparrow \infty$, $\sum_{n=1}^\infty E(X_n-X_{n-1})^2/b_n^2 < \infty$, then $X_n/b_n \rightarrow 0$ a.s..
If $X_n \in L^2$, I can show that this reduces to Durrett Exercise 5.4.8, which I have solved, since the above also gives us that the the sum of $\sum_{n=1}^\infty E\left(\frac{X_n}{b_n}-\frac{X_{n-1}}{b_{n-1}}\right)^2<\infty$, and then I can use orthogonality of martingale increments, and $L^p$ convergence theorem to conclude that it converges in almost surely and in $L^2$, although I'm not sure that I can show it converges to 0.
But, in this case, I am stuck and unable to proceed
Hints: Since $b_n \uparrow \infty$ we may assume without loss of generality that $b_n>1$ for all $n \geq 1$.