Do I understand it correctly that $$P(1.25 < X < 1.75) = P (X <1.75) - P(X < 1.25)= P(X \le 1) -P(X \le 1)=0?$$
Another question : Is $$P(0.5 < X <1.5) = P(X =1)?$$
Thanks in advance.
Do I understand it correctly that $$P(1.25 < X < 1.75) = P (X <1.75) - P(X < 1.25)= P(X \le 1) -P(X \le 1)=0?$$
Another question : Is $$P(0.5 < X <1.5) = P(X =1)?$$
Thanks in advance.
Yes. If $X \sim \operatorname{Binomial}(n,p)$, then $\Pr[1.25 < X < 1.75] = 0$, because the support of $X$ is on the set $X \in \{0, 1, \ldots, n\}$. Since there are no integers between $1.25$ and $1.75$, the desired probability is zero.