If $X$ is quasi-projective but the scheme $\tilde{X}$ is affine, is $X$ necessarily affine?

Question

I'm curious if the following works as a criterion to determine when a quasi-projective variety is actually affine.

If $X$ is a quasi-projective variety, and the scheme $\tilde{X}$ is affine, does this necessarily imply that $X$ is an affine variety?