My book says that if $X$ is uniformly (0,1) distributed, then $-\log(X)$ has an exponential distribution with parameter $1$.
However, how are we sure that $- \log(X)$ is well defined?
I.e., can't it be the case that $X$ takes negative values?
2026-03-24 22:01:44.1774389704
If $X$ is uniformly $(0,1)$ distributed, how are we sure that $\log X$ is well defined?
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