If $X \sim \exp(\lambda)$, then what is the exact distribution of $Y=e^{-\lambda X}$?
After my calculation of the probability density function of $f(y)=\dfrac{1}{y\cdot(e^{\ln y})}$ that should be $1$.
And that is wired. I don't know how to convert into a reasonable distribution function.
For $y > 1$, $$F_Y(y) = P(Y \leq y) = P(e^{-\lambda X} \leq y) = 1 $$ because $e^{-\lambda x} \leq 1$ for all $x \geq 0$.
For $0 \leq y \leq 1$ \begin{align*} F_Y(y) = P(Y \leq y) &= P(e^{-\lambda X} \leq y)\\ &= P(\ln(e^{-\lambda X}) \leq \ln(y))\\ &= P(-\lambda X \leq \ln(y))\\ &= P\left (\lambda X \geq \ln\left (\frac{1}{y}\right )\right )\\ &= P\left (X \geq \frac{1}{\lambda} \ln \left(\frac{1}{y} \right) \right )\\ &= \int_{\frac{1}{\lambda} \ln \left(\frac{1}{y} \right)}^{\infty} \lambda e^{-\lambda x} dx\\ &= - \left [0 - e^{-\lambda \frac{1}{\lambda} \ln \left(\frac{1}{y} \right)} \right ] \\ &= e^{ -\ln \left(\frac{1}{y} \right)}\\ &= e^{\ln(y)}\\ &= y \end{align*}