Suppose $g$ is the density of $N(0,1)$ and $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is arbitrary. Suppose that the convolution $[f\ast g](x)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x-t)g(t)dt=0$ for all $x$ on a closed interval $I$.
If $I=\mathbb{R}$, then we can apply the Convolution Theorem $\mathcal{F}(f\ast g)=\mathcal{F}(f)\cdot \mathcal{F}(g)$ and use fact that $\mathcal{F}(g)>0$ to deduce that $\mathcal{F}(f)=0$, and thus $f=0$ almost everywhere. But what if $I=[a,b]$ where $-\infty<a<b<+\infty$? Is it still true that $f=0$ almost everywhere?
Let $h=g*f$ and assume that $f$ is integrable.
Here are some facts:
Now you can use the Fourerits method to show that $f=0$ everwhere.