In this specific example, Would it be okay to assume that the function will never attain a minimum and will only attain a maximum on the constraint.

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Hello, I am not sure if I can assume if this function will attain a global extrema or not. I know that if a function is compact and continuous then it will for sure attain a global maxima by the extreme value theorem. However, in this particular example, g has a upper bound but doesn't have a lower bound. Thus, I'm not sure if there will be a global maximum since it only has an upper bound and it is not compact. Does having an upper bound guarantees that the function will attain a maximum on the region g(x,y,z) ? I found that the only critical point satisfying this constraint is (0,0,2). should I assume directly that is a maximum ? or it isnt always the case?

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You have inequality constraints which mean that either the extrema occurs on the boundary of these constraints or the interior. If the extrema occurs at the boundary, a dose of lagrange multipliers gives you the solution $(x,y,z,\lambda) = (0,0,2,-4)$. There's a trick for checking whether this point is a maxima or minima. Consider the Lagrange Function $\Lambda = f - (-4) g$ and consider it's hessian with respect to $(x,y,z)$ at the point $(0,0,2)$: $$\textbf{H}_\Lambda = \left[\begin{matrix}10 & 0 & 0\\0 & 10 & 0\\0 & 0 & 2\end{matrix}\right]$$ If this matrix is positive definite (which it is in our case since it's eigenvalues are all positive), then the point we found $(0,0,2)$ is a minimum. Correspondingly, the value of $f$ at this point is $f(0,0,2) = 4$.

If instead the extrema occurs at the interior, then it must be an unconstrained local extrema of $f$ that happens to lie within the interior. Of course, our function $f$ has the property that: $$\nabla f = \left[\begin{matrix}2 x\\2 y\\2 z\end{matrix}\right] = \textbf{0}$$ $\implies x=y=z = 0$ is the only local (and therefore global) extremum of $f$ and it must be a minimum because $f$ is unbounded above. It's also easy to see that $(0,0,0)$ doesn't lie in the set because $x^2 + y^2 - z = 0 \nleq -2$. So that means the global extrema of $f$ on the set (which should be the extreme-most value from the set of extrema we've found on the set) is $f(0,0,2) = 4$ (which happens to be the only extrema we found in the set), and it's characterization is a minimum

Edit: Reviewing the problem, I noticed that we can get around inequality constraints by turning them into equality constraints by considering the same problem in a higher dimension. If $g(x,y,z):= x^2 + y^2 -z \leq -2$, then we can convert this to $g(x,y,z,\alpha):= x^2 + y^2 -z + \alpha^2 = -2$ for some value of $\alpha$. Then we set up the Lagrange function: $\Lambda = f - \lambda g$ and set $\nabla \Lambda = 0$ where $\nabla$ also contains the term for $\frac{\partial}{\partial \alpha}$ since we're in a higher dimensional space now. We get: $$\nabla \Lambda = \left[\begin{matrix}- 2 \lambda x + 2 x\\- 2 \lambda y + 2 y\\\lambda + 2 z\\- \alpha^{2} - x^{2} - y^{2} + z - 2\\- 2 \alpha \lambda\end{matrix}\right] = \textbf{0}$$ Solving this gives us $(x,y,z,\lambda,\alpha) = \left( 0, \ 0, \ 0, \ 0, \ \pm \sqrt{2} i\right), \left( 0, \ 0, \ 2, \ -4, \ 0\right), \left( 0, \ \pm \frac{\sqrt{10} i}{2}, \ - \frac{1}{2}, \ 1, \ 0\right)$. Getting rid of complex solutions leaves us with just: $(x,y,z,\lambda,\alpha) = \left( 0, \ 0, \ 2, \ -4, \ 0\right)$ which means this is the only solution on the boundary of $g(x,y,z,\alpha)=-2$ and therefore the only solution of the problem on the original constraint $g(x,y,z) \leq -2$.