I'm given the question:
A dice is rolled $15$ times. What is the probability that either a $1$ or $6$ is scored exactly eight times?
Now I know that the probability $1$ is scored exactly $8$ times is...
$Let \space P({X_n}=m)= Probability \space n \space is \space scored \space m \space times$
$P({X_1}=8)={15\choose 8} ({1\over 6})^8 ({5\over 6})^7$
And since it's a fair dice, likewise...
$P({X_6}=8)={15\choose 8} ({1\over 6})^8 ({5\over 6})^7$
Now about the "either $1$ or $6$" part, do I do that FIRST as in...
$P({X_1} \cup {X_6}) = {2\over 6}$
Then do...
$ {15\choose 8} ({2\over 6})^8 ({4\over 6})^7 $
OR...
Is it meant to be done as the final step like so...
$P( P({X_1}=8) \cup P({X_6}=8))$
I hope my question makes sense.
By inclusion-exclusion, \begin{align*} P(X_1=8\cup X_6=8) &= P(X_1 = 8)+P(X_6 = 8)-P(X_1 = 8, X_6 = 8)\\ & = \binom{15}{8}\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^8\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^7+\binom{15}{8}\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^8\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^7+0\\ &= 2\binom{15}{8}\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^8\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^7 \end{align*} where $P(X_1 = 8, X_6 = 8)=0$ since you can't roll 8 ones and 8 sixes since you only roll 15 times.
If the interpretation is that on each roll, you treat a one and a six a success (you are interested in rolling a one or a six), then let $$Y_i = \{\text{Roll a six or a one on roll $i$}\}.$$ Then let $S = Y_1+\dotsc+Y_{15}$ which follows $\text{Bin}(15, p = 2/6)$ and so $$P(S = 8) = \binom{15}{8}\left(\frac{2}{6}\right)^8\left(\frac{4}{6}\right)^7.$$