Let $M$, $N$, and $P$ be points of intersection of the incircle of triangle $ABC$ with sides $AB$, $BC$, and $CA$, respectively. Prove that the orthocenter of $\triangle MNP$, the incenter of $\triangle ABC$ and the circumcenter of $\triangle ABC$ are collinear.
Can someone prove this without using inversion? Or is it possible to turn 'inversive geometyr proof' to 'euclidean geometry proof'?
Here is a possible proof "without inversion". (Note: Generally i am against settings of problems, which discriminate some structural part of mathematics, and ask for a solution "without" some ingredient, which would make the solution straightforward, simple, and easy to remember. But in this case i will accept the challenge. There will be some similitude argument instead... well, same two circles as in the solution using inversion are the main actors.)
Note that even the main wiki page for the inversion uses this problem to illustrate the use and usefulness of the inversion:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inversive_geometry#Application
I will slightly change the notation to fit the order in the alphabet. So $M$ is not on $AB$, but on the side opposite to the vertex $A$, and similarly for $N,P$. (Else i would commit errors.) So let us state explicitly...
Proof: All points are clear. (2) deserves maybe a slight explanation. The lines $oM=IM$, and $OA'$ are perpendicular on $BC$. ($M$ is the tangency point of $(I)$, and $OA'$ is the side bisector of $BC$.) So $oM\|OA'$. Then in $\Delta MNP$ we have the parallelogram $oMM'S$. (For instance, $IS$, $MM'$ are perpendicular on $NP$, it remains to show they have the same length. Use now that $9$ is the mid point of $oh$, $9$ is also the mid point of the diameter $M'S$, so $ShM'o$ parallelogram, so $SI=So=hM'=M'M$.)
$\square$