I have a proof that I am trying to prove and I am getting stuck at the inductive hypothesis. This is my theorem:
For all real numbers $n>3$, the following is true: $n + 3 < n!$.
I have proven true for $n = 4$, and will assume true for some arbitrary value $k$, i.e.,
$$k + 3 < n!,$$
and I want to prove for $k+1$, i.e.,
$$(k+1) + 3 < (k+1)!.$$
Consider the $k+1$ term:
$$(k+1)+3 = ?$$
I am confused on how to approach the next step.
Ok here is how I am proceeding. It seems really long so if anyone has a better way let me know: $$ =(k+3)+1 $$ $$ <(k!)+1 $$ $$ <k!+k! $$ $$ =2k! $$ $$ <(k+1)k! $$ $$ =(k+1)! $$ Therefore both sides are equivalent.
As you are trying to solve this problem, I'll only give you a hint.
Inductive Step: we want to show $(n+1)+3 < (n+1)!$
That's equivalent to $n+4 < (n+1)\cdot n!$ by the property of the factorial.
We can distribute: $n+4 < (n\cdot n!) + (1\cdot n!)$
Can you take it from here?