
I was reading Lagrangian multipliers . In the above text I can't understand why $\lambda \ge 0 $ for $g(x)\ge0$ and vice versa . Can anyone give me the explanation to this ?

I was reading Lagrangian multipliers . In the above text I can't understand why $\lambda \ge 0 $ for $g(x)\ge0$ and vice versa . Can anyone give me the explanation to this ?
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