Mathematica tells me that for $r, p$ positive integers with $\mathcal{r} < p$ we have
$$\sum_{i=p+1}^\infty \frac{(i-r)!}{(i+r)!} = \frac{(p+1-r)!}{(2r-1)(p+r)!}. $$
Can anyone point me in the direction of a proof of this?
For $r=1$, this is reduces to
$$ \sum_{i=p+1}^\infty \frac{1}{i(i+1)} = \frac{1}{1+p}$$ which can be shown be a partial fraction expansion and telescoping sum argument.
Thanks.
Let $$f(p) = \dfrac{(p+1-r)!}{(2r-1)(p+r)!}$$ and note that $$f(p) - f(p-1) = - \dfrac{(p-r)!}{(p+r)!}$$ which tells you that your sum is $f(p)+c$ for some constant $c$. Now just look at the limit as $p \to \infty$.