$OPR$ is a sector with central angle $\theta$. $A(\theta)$ is the area of the segment bounded by the line $PR$ and the arc $PR$ and $B(\theta)$ is the area of the triangle $PQR$.
The ratio $$\frac{A(\theta)}{B(\theta)} = \frac{r^2(\theta-\sin\theta)}{2\frac{r^2(1-\cos\theta)\sin\theta}{2}}$$
If I use L'Hôpital to find $\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{A(\theta)}{B(\theta)}$, then the answer is $\frac{1}{3}$.
I was wondering if there is any intuition for this limit and if this should be the answer you 'expect'... I originally thought it would be $0$ and also not sure why this is wrong.
As a smaller note, most books with this example write $\theta \rightarrow 0^+$, but is it OK to still write $\theta \rightarrow 0$?

Not terribly intuitive, but using Taylor in the numerator and a trigonometric formula in the denominator: $$\frac{(\theta - \sin\theta)}{(1 - \cos\theta)\sin\theta} = \frac{\theta^3/6 + o(\theta^3)}{2\sin^2(\theta/2)\sin\theta},$$ the equivalence $\sin\theta\approx\theta$ for $\theta$ small gives easily the answer.
Update: the approximation $\sin\theta \sim \theta - \theta^3/6$ has a geometric proof: Is there a geometric method to show $\sin x \sim x - \frac{x^3}{6}$.